Original Sin and Psalm 51

Proponents of original sin really like to use this psalm to support the contention that all humanity is sinful (that is: full of sin, guilty) from birth.  The key verse is verse 5:

Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, 
and in sin did my mother conceive me.

Psalm 51.5

Proponents of original sin take this psalm to be a commentary on the nature of mankind. For example, Calvin says of this verse that David acknowledges that even within the womb “his nature was entirely depraved” and he “was absolutely destitute of all spiritual good.” (You can read Calvin’s commentary on the entire psalm here.) Indeed, Calvin taught elsewhere that all infants (including David) are “odious and abominable to God” by virtue of their inborn sinful nature.

Is that what David is saying? Is David teaching on the sinful nature of mankind in this psalm? My contention is this: although David could be making this point, it’s far more likely that he is instead using poetic language to reflect on his own sinful state.

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What happens to the innocents?

As I’ve been researching the history of the doctrine of original sin, I’ve been pondering the eternal destiny of persons whom I’m calling “the innocents.” By innocent, I mean any person who does not have the capacity to understand and accept or reject the gospel. This includes those who died as infants, those who were aborted, and those who are born without sufficient mentally ability through a defect or damage.

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The Message of the Wise Men

A lot has been made of the wise men who visited Jesus very early in his life, and it seems that most folks are interested in knowing who they are or where they came from, why they brought gifts, what the star they followed actually was, etc. These are all interesting questions, but I want to look at something else. (By the way, fast facts on the wise men: we don’t know how many, we don’t know from where, and there’s nothing which says they were kings.)

I want to focus on the fact that they were not Israelites. What in the world were they doing there? Why did Matthew include them in his gospel? Most of Jesus’ interactions in this gospel were with other Jews, so it seems important when these foreigners are mentioned so prominently.

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Divorce and Remarriage in the Bible

Here’s a lengthy essay I wrote on this topic: link.

For the tl;dr crowd, here’s the conclusion: both the Old and New Testaments provide certain grounds for a valid divorce, which includes the option of remarriage. Divorce outside of these grounds is forbidden to Christians, and Christians are always encouraged to maintain the marriage.

I welcome comments! Corrections, agreements, disagreements, what-about-this observations, etc.